Information on California Recourse Loan - The Bills.com Blog
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Information on California Recourse Loan
Tuesday, Mar 18, 2008
Question: I have 80/20 loan when I first bought my home, 20 being HELOC. The following year I refinanced this HELOC with another HELOC, but with fixed rate. Does this mean this HELOC became a recourse loan in California? Thanks.
Answer: (
Note from Bill : The following is a good but brief comparison of recourse and non-recourse loans in California, and how this issue pertains to Home Equity Lines of Credit. For a more in-depth discussion of these issues, see "
Is My HELOC a Recourse or Non-Recourse Loan in California?")
I think by
refinancing only your second loan, you turned the loan into a recourse loan. A recourse loan is one where the lender can collect the amount you owe on a deficiency balance. A non-recourse loan is a loan that the bank can only look to their secured interest. In other words, they can only foreclose, they cannot get a deficiency judgment and attempt to collect it. Whether a loan is recourse or non-recourse varies with the state you are in.
The big mistake homeowners make
is when they unknowingly turn a non-recourse second loan into a recourse loan by refinancing it. So how is a second mortgage also a non-recourse loan? Simple, in an 80/20 loan, it was "purchase money" for your home. A purchase money loan is one where the money went from the lender, to escrow, and then to the seller or to pay purchase closing costs. In California purchase money loans made on your home (note: not second home or investment properties) are non-recourse.
The mistake comes when you refinance your second purchase money mortgage.
Because it is no longer a purchase money loan, a refinance transforms it into a recourse loan. That means the lender has the option of chasing you into bankruptcy collecting it. Or worse, they will sell it to a debt collector.
I suggest that you confirm the status of your second loan with your lender, and see if another form of refinance (to club both the loans) will make it a non-recourse loan.
For more information on mortgages, please visit our
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I hope the information provided helps you Find. Learn Save.
Best,
Bill
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1. Posted by imad on Sunday 3rd August 2008 07:05
Irefinanced my loan after 2 years (RM) to 3/27 (RM) and took $15000. out, does that make the loan recourse? how I will know if it is? Would it say in my contract?
2. Posted by Bill on Monday 4th August 2008 08:04
These recourse laws vary from state to state, so yes, the best place to check would be on your contract. If the wording on the contract confuses you, I would suggest that you get on the phone with your mortgage lender to clarify the same.
3. Posted by Randy on Tuesday 17th February 2009 14:22
In regards to the recourse HELOC, you say, "the lender will chase you into bankruptcy collecting it" Does that mean they can collect it if you do file bankruptcy on just the HELOC but not the first loan?
4. Posted by Bill on Tuesday 17th February 2009 15:18
No, bankruptcy will protect you from creditor action. What I meant to say was that when a loan turns recoursable, the lender might pursue aggressive collection tactics that might make you consider filing for bankruptcy.
5. Posted by judi on Tuesday 17th February 2009 19:25
I purchased my home in 2005 with a subprime loan. In 2006 I refinanced to a fixed rate and had to pay $8000 in prepayment penalty. I added that penalty to my loan and paid the closing cost out of my pocket. Is this consider a recourse loan? I was told by a few people that this was consider a recourse loan.
6. Posted by Bill on Wednesday 18th February 2009 19:07
Probably so. To be non-recourse, the loan needs to be a purchase money loan, meaning the first loan that you took out to buy the home. The moment you refinance any of the purchase money loans, you turn the loan to a recourse loan.
7. Posted by James on Monday 13th July 2009 12:58
I also refinanced my second into a better rate, received no cash out proceeds. The home was lost in foreclosure. I have reviewed the note in full and see no language regarding recourse beyond foreclosure yet the lender did sale the loan to a collection agent. Wouldn't the note have listed the collection terms open to the lender?
8. Posted by Bill on Monday 13th July 2009 13:56
Your note is subject to the laws of your state, unless otherwise permitted and articulated in your contract. It's possible the lender didn't bother to spell-out the recourse/no-recourse terms because they are well defined in your state, although I would find that unusual because this is such a key condition. Given that you are in foreclosure, calling your creditor and expecting accurate legal advice about this matter may be too much to ask. Either look at your state government's Web site for your recourse rules, or ask an attorney in your state who specializes in property issues.
9. Posted by Jenny on Friday 18th September 2009 06:35
We purchased a home in 2004, then took out a HELOC in 2006. The property is now foreclosed, located in CA. Would the HELOC be considered a recourse or non recourse in your opinion?
10. Posted by Bill on Friday 18th September 2009 08:32
Under California law, a lender cannot pursue a borrower for a deficiency balance resulting from a first mortgage used to purchase a primary residence. (Cal. Code Civ. Proc. § 580b) A "purchase money" loan is one where the money went from the lender, to escrow, and then to the seller or to pay purchase closing costs. Second mortgages may or may not be recourse loans under California law. If the second mortgage was taken out at the time of sale and was used as purchase money loan then it is a non-recourse loan. However, if the second mortgage was financed after the initial purchase of the property and is on a second deed, then Section 580b does not apply. To your question, if the home equity line of credit (HELOC) was not used as a purchase money loan used to buy the property, then it is considered a recourse loan under California law.
11. Posted by joey cuneo on Thursday 24th September 2009 09:55
Investment property purchase money & seconds in CA are recourse or non-recourse loans?
12. Posted by Bill on Thursday 24th September 2009 11:28
Cal. Code Civ. Proc. § 580b reads in part, "No deficiency judgment shall lie in any event after a sale of real property or an estate for years therein for failure of the purchaser to complete his or her contract of sale, or under a deed of trust or mortgage given to the vendor to secure payment of the balance of the purchase price of that real property or estate for years therein, or under a deed of trust or mortgage on a dwelling for not more than four families given to a lender to secure repayment of a loan which was in fact used to pay all or part of the purchase price of that dwelling occupied, entirely or in part, by the purchaser." (Emphasis added.) I read 580b to limit non-recourse loans to primary residences, and not investment properties. For more analysis of this issue, see Is My HELOC a Recourse or Non-Recourse Loan in California?.
13. Posted by Joel Oconer on Wednesday 21st October 2009 18:17
Hi Bill, i am in the process of short sale and got the approval for both banks. My primary lender Bankunited will issue a 1099C while 2ndary lender BOA will proceed with $80,000 collections besides the $18,200 they will get from this short sale. I started escrow this week. I never refinanced. How can i fight off this collection? If this is a law, why do banks still pursue deficiency? What proof do i need to show the bank that this is a non recourse loan so they will not pursue collection of deficieny?
14. Posted by Bill on Thursday 22nd October 2009 09:58
My answer assumes the property is in California, based on the context of your question. If you are asking about a property outside of California, then disregard the following because California's rules are irrelevant to you. First, please read Is My HELOC a Recourse or Non-Recourse Loan in California? Walk through the article I mentioned to see if the mortgage in question is a a) "purchase money" loan, b) for a primary residence, c) not refinanced. Second, it is my understanding that by definition a short sale forgives the deficiency balance. If this is not so, then the lender is using its own definition of short sale. Also by definition, a short sale is a voluntary agreement in which the borrower agrees to maintain and sell the property in exchange for the creditor not foreclosing. I should not be surprised to learn that different mortgage companies are writing their own short sale rules. Third, I believe your central questions are, "Can creditors require debtors to waive their non-recourse rights?" and "Can non-recourse rights be waived legally?" I have not been able to determine if these questions have been litigated in California.